Draft for Information Only
Content
Analytic Function β Analytic Function with Zero Derivative βConsequences βAnalytic Functions with Constant Norm βA Strange Example
source/reference: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCaTLkDn9_1Wy5TRYfVULYUw/playlists
Analytic Function
Analytic Function with Zero Derivative
By theorem. If π is analytic on a domain π·, if πβ²(π§)=0 for all π§βπ·, then
π is constant in π·.
Recall the 1-dimensional analog:
By Fact, if π(π,π)ββ is differentiable and satisfies πβ²(π₯)=0 for all π₯β(π,π),
then π is constant on (π,π).
Idea of proof
- First, show that π is constant in any disk π΅π(π), contained in π·,
using 1-dimensional fact.
- Second, use the fact that π· is connected and the first fact to show that π is
constant in π·.
Main steps
- First step. Let π΅π(π) be a disk contained in π·, and let πβπ΅π(π).
Pick the point πβπ΅π(π) as in the picture. Since πβ²(π§)=0 in π·, then
π’π₯=π’π¦=π£π₯=π£π¦=0 in π·. In particular, look
at π’ on the horizontal segment from π to π. It depends only on one parameter
(namely π₯) there, and π’π₯=0. By the 1-dimensional fact, π’ is
constant on the line segment, in particular, π’(π)=π’(π). Similarly, π’(π)=π’(π), thus
π’(π)=π’(π). Since π was an arbitrary point in π΅π(π), π’ is
thus constant in π΅π(π). Similarly, π£, is constant in π΅π(π),
thus π is constant in π΅π(π).
- Second step. Let π and π be two arbitrary points in π·. Since π· is connected,
there exist a nice curve in π·, joining π and π. By the previous step, π is
constant in the disk around the point π (see picture). Furthermore, π is also constant in the
neighboring disk. Since these two disks overlap, the two constants must agree. continue on in this matter
until reaching π. Therefore, π(π)=π(π). Thus π is constant in π·.
Consequences
The previous theorem, together with the Cauchy-Riemann equations, has strong consequences.
- Suppose that π=π’+ππ£ is analytic in a domain π·. Suppose furthermore, that π’ is
constant in π·. Then π must be constant in π·.
Proof: π’ constant in π· implies that π’π₯=π’π¦=0 in π·.
Since π is analytic, the Cauchy-Riemann equations now imply that π£π₯=π£π¦=0
as well. Thus πβ²=π’π₯+ππ£π₯=0 in π·. By our theorem, π is
constant in π·.
-
Similarly, if π=π’+ππ£ is analytic in a domain π· with π£ being constant, then π
must be constant in π·.
-
Suppose next that π=π’+ππ£ is analytic in a domain π· with |π| being constant in
π·. This too implies that π itself must be constant.
Analytic Functions with Constant Norm
Let π=π’+ππ£ be analytic in a domain π·, and suppose that |π| is constant in π·.
Then |π|2 is also constant, i.e. there exists πββ such that
|π(π§)|2=π’2(π§)+π£2(π§)=π for all π§βπ·
- If π=0 then π’ and π£ must be equal to zero everywhere, and so π is equal
to zero in π·.
-
If πβ 0 then in fact π>0. Taking the partial derivative with respect to π₯ (and
similarly with respect to π¦) of the above equation yields:
2π’π’π₯+2π£π£π₯=0 and 2π’π’π¦+2π£π£π¦=0
Substituting π£π₯=βπ’π¦ in the first and π£π¦=π’π₯
in the second equation gives
π’π’π₯βπ£π’π¦=0 and π’π’π¦+π£π’π₯=0
Multiplying the first equation by π’ and the second by π£, find
π’2π’π₯βπ’π£π’π¦=0 and π’π£π’π¦+π£2π’π₯=0
Add the twoe equations
π’2π’π₯+π£2π’π₯=0
Since π’2+π£2=π, this last equation becomes
ππ’π₯=0
But π>0, so it must be the case that π’π₯=0 in π·. And, π’π¦=0
in π· can be found similarly. Using the Cauchy-riemann equations, π’π₯=π£π¦=0
in π· can be obtained. Hence πβ²(π§)=0 in π·, and the theorem yields that π
is constant in π·. Note: The assumption of π· being connected is important.
A Strange Example
Let
π:βββ, π(π§)={ π-1π§4, π§β 00, π§=0
- One can find π’, π£, π’π₯, π’π¦, π£π₯, π£π¦ and they actually
satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations in β.
-
Clearly, π is analytic in β\{0}.
-
At the origin, one can show that π’π₯(0)=π’π¦(0)=π’π₯(0)=π’π¦(0)=0
- However, π is not differentiable at 0. How is this possible?
-
The function π isn't even continuous at the origin.
-
Consider π§ approaching the origin along the real axis, i.e. π§=π₯+πβ
0β0. Then
π(π§)=π(π₯)=π-1π₯4 β0
-
Next, consider π§ approaching the origin along the imaginary zxis, i.e. π§=0+ππ¦β0. Then
π(π§)=π(ππ¦)=π-1π4π¦4 β0
-
However, consider π§=ππππ4 β0. Then π§4=π4πππ4 β
4=-π4, so
π(π§)=π-1-π4 =π1π4 βββ π(0)
Although the functions π’ and π£ satisfy theCauchy-Riemann equations, yet, π is not differentable at the origin. This is because
the partial derivatives are not continuous at 0, so the assumptions of the theorem of Cauchy-Riemann equations are not satisified.
Β©sideway
ID: 190400012 Last Updated: 4/12/2019 Revision: 0
|
 |